Disclaimer: I'm not asking for myself or anyone in real life, and I obviously acknowledge that this is an extremely unhealthy hypothetical situation that should not be encouraged. With that out of the way...
Say someone consumes 20,000 calories all in one day, and then fasts, consuming exactly 0 calories for 'x' number of days directly following the binge. I'm assuming the first few days, the lack of calories would to some extent counteract the excess calories from the binge day, since the body would still be using the binge calories for fuel, resulting in a two-day average consumption of 10,000 calories, and maybe a three-day average of 6,667 calories. But, after exactly how many days would the body stop using the calories from the binge for fuel and just start burning lean mass or adipose (fat) tissue instead? Would it be (20,000 / TDEE) days, or a smaller number?
Would the answer be different if it were only 5,000 calories?
What if it were 10,000 calories split over two days rather than 20,000 calories all in one day?
Say someone consumes 20,000 calories all in one day, and then fasts, consuming exactly 0 calories for 'x' number of days directly following the binge. I'm assuming the first few days, the lack of calories would to some extent counteract the excess calories from the binge day, since the body would still be using the binge calories for fuel, resulting in a two-day average consumption of 10,000 calories, and maybe a three-day average of 6,667 calories. But, after exactly how many days would the body stop using the calories from the binge for fuel and just start burning lean mass or adipose (fat) tissue instead? Would it be (20,000 / TDEE) days, or a smaller number?
Would the answer be different if it were only 5,000 calories?
What if it were 10,000 calories split over two days rather than 20,000 calories all in one day?
from Bodybuilding.com Forums - Nutrition https://ift.tt/Omzhaf2
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